On July 12, 1843 Mormonism’s founder, Joseph Smith, recorded a revelation about plural marriage that wasn’t published in the Doctrine and Covenants until 1852. It is now Section 132 in the current Doctrine and Covenants. The introduction to it says, "It is evident from the historical records that the doctrines and principles involved in this revelation had been known by the Prophet since 1831." That explanation was given because Joseph Smith had secretly practiced polygamy since around 1831. In fact, out of his 34 known wives he married all but two or three of them before this revelation was recorded!

Doctrine and Covenants Section 132:1-4 says,

In Doctrine and Covenants 132:1 "the Lord" was answering Smith’s inquiry about how Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Moses, David and Solomon were "justified" in having many wives and concubines. So, Smith was thinking about polygamy. In Doctrine and Covenants 132:34-39 "the Lord" told Smith that He gave them their wives, concubines and children and accounted them for righteousness and no sin was committed except in the case of David and Uriah’s wife.

But, Jacob 2:24 in the Book of Mormon, says that David and Solomon’s wives were an "abomination" to Him! So, did God give David and Solomon wives and concubines and justify them even though they were an abomination? Or, did Smith’s "revelation" come from God?

In verse 4, the Lord told Smith He was revealing a "new and everlasting covenant" regarding polygamy. But could Abraham, Isaac, Jacob and others have practiced it anciently if it was a new law in 1843? And why do Mormons now deny they practice it if it is an everlasting law? Verse 3 says, "All those who have this law revealed to them must obey the same" and verse 4 says, "If ye abide not that covenant, then are ye damned." It also says, "No one can reject this covenant and be permitted to enter into my glory" and verse 21 says, "Except ye abide my law ye cannot attain to this glory" (of godhood).

Doctrine and Covenants 132 is still LDS scripture, so all Mormons have that law revealed to them. But today they claim they do not practice polygamy, so are they damned as verse 3 says and are they excluded from God’s glory as verses 4 and 21 say? Or, doesn’t LDS scripture mean what it says? By the way, did Isaac and Moses have more than one wife?

Joseph Smith’s first wife, Emma, was angry when she heard about her husband’s involvement in polygamy and she refused to accept it. In order to "encourage" her to accept it "God" said in verse 52 "And let my handmaid, Emma Smith, receive all those (wives) that have been given unto my servant Joseph"…And in verse 54 He said, "And I command mine handmaid, Emma Smith, to abide and cleave unto my servant Joseph, and to none else. But if she will not abide this commandment she shall be destroyed, saith the Lord; for I am the Lord thy God, and will destroy her if she abide not in my law."

The irony of this LDS "scripture" is that Joseph lived the law of plural marriage, but eleven months after this "revelation" was recorded he was shot dead at the age of 38 while he was in jail for breaking the law! Emma rejected Smith’s revelation and refused to ever accept polygamy but was not destroyed. She lived 35 years longer than Joseph, married another man and died at the age of 75. So, did this "scripture" come from God?

Doctrine and Covenants 132:61-63 says,

Joseph Smith never received permission from his first wife, Emma, to marry his other wives, but he married them anyway. At least eleven of the wives Joseph married were already married to other men at the time Joseph married them, so they were not virgins! Therefore, Joseph broke the "law of God" regarding this. Several of Smith’s plural wives married other men after marrying Joseph, but they were not destroyed and all of them lived longer than Smith did!

Joseph also married at least seven girls between the ages of 14 and 17. Warren Jeffs, the current Prophet of the Fundamentalist Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints is now being prosecuted for marrying girls of that age to other men. If Jeffs is a criminal, isn’t Joseph Smith also a criminal?

The Doctrine and Covenants contains Mormonism’s latter day revelations, but what good are they if LDS members don’t obey them?